BHU Pre PG  -2009

1. Hepatitis-B-DNA-Polymerase coded by-

a. P-gene

b. S-gene

c. X-gene

d. C-gene

2. Meniscofemoral ligament attached to-

a. ant. portion of medial meniscus

b. post. portion of medial meniscus

c. ant. Portion of lat. Meniscus

d. post portion of lat. Meniscus

3.Lens subiuxation seen in-

a. Marfan

b. Trauma

c. complicated cataract

d.Homocystinuria

4. Timolol maleate (5%) contraindicated in-

a. B.Asthma

b. Hypotension

c. Tachypnoea

d. Tachycardia

5.  all are seen in SIRS, except-

a. fever > 38⁰C or  <35⁰C

b. BP < 90 mmhg

c. tachypnoea >24

d. tachycardia > 90

6. true regarding SIRS, except-

a. systemic inflammatory response syndrome

b. fever > 38⁰C  or  < 35⁰C

c. WBC > 2×10⁹/L  or  < 4×10⁹/L

d. found only in sepsis

7.true regarding wilms tumour , except-

a. usually unilateral

b. seen in < 4 years

c. most commonly metastatize to bone

d. if occur in < 1 year age, 80% survival for 5 yr.

8. angular conjunctivitis is caused by-

a. morexella

b. virus

c. herpes

d. fungus

9. decreased corneal sensation is caused by-

a. fungus

b. herpes simplex

c. conjunctivitis

d.

10. viral capsid is made up of

a. glycoprotein

b. lipoprotein

c. phospholipid

d. polypeptide

11. lipid A of lipopolysaccharide act as

a. endotoxin

b. exotoxin

c. entero toxin

d.

12. community acquired pneumonia is caused by all except-

a. streptococcus

b. staphylococcus

c. H. influenza

d. klebsiella

13. regarding G & Q banding in DNA all are correct except-

a. G & Q are rich in A & T

b. G & Q are rich in G & C

c. G & Q are rich in heterochromatin chromosome

d. late cell division of G & Q banding area

14. humanized monoclonal antibody is-

a. rituximab

b. abciximab

c. omalizumab

d. cetuximab

15.Thymidilate synthetase inhibitor is-

a. Methotrexate

b. Trimethoprim

c. Aminopterin

d. Fluorouridine

16. Prodrug is-

a. 6- Mercaptopurine

b. Azathioprine

c. Cyclophosphamide

d.

17. Least hyperglycemic drug is-

a. Hydrochlorthiazide

b. Indapamide

c. chlorthalidone

d.

18. Following causes Glycosuria with Hyperglycemia except-

a. Renal tubular disease

b. Pheochromocytoma

c. Diabetes Mellitus

d. Cushing’s syndrome

19. Last outbreak of  plague in india in-

a. 1994

b.1998

c.1989

d.1991

20. A disease present with severe joint pain, in Tanzania, the name of disease in local language means doubling up of pain is-

a. Dengue

b. K.F.D.

c. Chickenguinea

d.

21. True about Rheumatoid Arthritis-

a. Involves large & small  joints

b.Pulmonary nodules not seen

c. pleural effusion with low glucose

d. Prominent Enthesopathy

22. Dimorphic fungi is-

a. Candida albicans

b. Histoplasma capsulatum

c. Cryptococcus neoformans

d. Rhinosporidium

23. Not stained with Zn-Stain

a. Isospora

b. Cyclospora

c. Microconidia

d. Crytosporidium

24. Parachute Reflex appears in-

a. 3 month

b. 4 month

c. 6 month

d. 9 month

25. Primitive streak appears in-

a. 13 days

b. 15 days

c. 17 days

d. 19 days

26. Following is seen in Horner syndrome except-

a. Miosis

b. Anhydrosis

c. Exophthalmos

d. Ptosis

27. Gene responsible for normal morphogenesis-

a. P 53

b. Homeobox

c. P 16

d. CDK 4

28. True regarding Griseofulvin, except-

a. Used only for dermatophytes

b. Microsomal enzyme inhibitor

c. Absorption is increase with fatty meal

29. Mechanism of action of clindamycin-

a. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor

b. DNA Gyrase inhibitor

c. Protein synthesis inhibition by 30s ribosome

d. Protein synthesis by 50s ribosome

30. Sezary syndrome is-

a. Large-T-Cell lymphoma

b. CLL

c. ALL

d. Erythroleukemia

31. Roentgen features of 9 yr. child with severe Bronchial-Asthma resembles with-

a. Bilateral acute severe emphysema

b. Bilateral pneumonitis

c. Bilateral pneumothorax

d. Bilateral pleural effusion

32. Following are seen in carcinoid triad, except-

a. Diarrhoea

b. Flushing

c. PSVT

d. Wheezing

33. True regarding CABG-

a. Int. mammary artery used as graft

b. Poor prognosis in reduced LVF

c. CABG is indicated when <50% block

34. Abdominal pregnancy criteria is known as-

a. Spigelberg criteria

b. Studdiford criteria

c. Hoffman’s criteria

d. Arias stella criteria

35. True regarding posterior occipital fontanelle except-

a. Known as lambda

b. Inverted Y-shaped

c. Used for diagnosis of presentation

d. Fused at 18 month

36. Acute coronary syndrome is all except-

a. Unstable angina

b. Stable angina

c. STEMI

d. NSTEMI

37. Calcaneum fracture is treated with all, except-

a. Pop cast with early, mobilization

b. Weight bearing & open reduction

c.

d.

38. Most sensitive test for DIC-

a. D-Dimer

b. Fibrin degradation product

c. Low fibrinogen level

d. Prothrombin

39. True regarding Gradenigo syndrome is all except-

a. Otalgia

b. CSOM

c. Lateral Rectus palsy

d. Facial palsy

40. Most sensitive marker of Iron deficiency anaemia-

a. Serum ferritin

b. Transferin saturation

c. Serum Fe

d. Decrease Hb

41. earliest marker of iron deficiency anaemia-

 a. Serum ferritin

b. Transferin saturation

c. Serum Fe

d. Decrease Hb

42. subtypes of chronic interstitial lung disease are all except-

a. fibrosing

b. granulomatous

c. eosinophilic

d. basophilic

43. true regarding wegners granulomatosis are all except-

a. necrotizing granulomas in ear & nose

b. vasculitis

c. granulomatous colitis

d. focal necrotizing crecentric glomerulitis

44. triad of pain, bleeding & jaundice is seen in-

a. hemobilia

b. obstructive jaundice

c. viral hepatitis

d.

45. true regarding gall stones are all except-

a. most common site is first part of duodenum

b. is due to cholecystoenteric fistula

c.

d.

46. normal level of ferritin in pregnancy

a. 40-60 µgm/dl

b. 100-200 µgm/dl

c. 200-450 µgm/dl

d. 500-700 µgm/dl

47. IN double contrast, Barium concentration is-

a. 100%

b. 70%

c. 25%

d. 40%

48. sodium concentration in low osmlal ORS is-

a. 75

b. 70

c. 65

d. 80

49. all are seen in ankylosing spondylitis, except-

a. prostatitis

b. colitis

c. aortic regurgitation

d.

50. DOC of granulocytopenia is-

a. filgrastim

b.

c.

d.

51. true regarding SAG-M blood, except-

a. used in anaemia

b. used in hyperproteinemia

c. correct platelet deficiency

d. crystalloids are used as diluent

52. true regarding carotid message-

a. increases BP

b. decreases BP

c. BP is normal

d. increases heart rate

53. structure preserved in radical neck dissection-

a. vagus nerve

b. internal jugular nerve

c. sub mandibular gland

d. sternomastoid

54. triangle of doom is used as landmark in-

a. hernia

b.

c.

d.

55. most common primary for cervical metastasis-

a. tongue

b. palate

c. nasopharynx

d. tonsil

56. regarding Ca²⁺ release from sarcoplasmic reticulam, true is-

a. release from ryanodine receptor

b. from T-tubules

c. from C-tubules

d.

57. ATP is used in all, except-

a. association of actinomycin

b. power stroke

c. dissociation of actin and myocin

d. Ca²⁺ release

58. true regarding myoepithelial cell, except-

a. derived from mesoderm

b. component is actin

c. causes secretion of gland

d. derivative of smooth muscles

59. treatment of chloroquine resistant malaria are all, except-

a. proguanil

b. quinine

c. artemether

d. fansidar

60. chi-square test is done for-

a. causal relationship

b. correlation between two variables

c. association between two variables

d.

61. treatment of torsades de pointes-

a.  esmolol

b. propranolol

c. lidocaine

d.MgSO₄

62. most efficient complement fixation is caused by-

a. IgM

b. IgA

c. IgE

d. IgG

63. a patient is present with increase direct bilirubin, increase total bilirubin, and increase AFP. Probable diagnosis is-

a. obstructive jaundice

b. hepatocellular  jaundice

c. hemolytic anaemia

d.

64. all are treatment of allergic rhinitis,except-

a. saccharine

b. PRIST

c. RAST

d. nasal provocation & prick test

65. non benzodiazepine sedative is-

a. zolpidem

b. buspirone

c. midazolam

d. clobazam

66. following is seen in severe kyphoscoliosis-

a. increased RV/TLC

b. decreased FEV₁/FVC

c. decreased FEV_25-75

d. increased FRC

67. most common site of incision in tympanic membrane-

a. antero-superior

b. antero-inferior

c. postero-superior

d. postero-inferior

68. a case of blunt trauma abdomen present with hypotension, which is not controlled with IV fluid, is managed with-

a. immediate laparotomy

b. blood transfusion

c.

d.

69. a patient present with fragmented kidney due to blunt trauma, investigation of choice is-

a. retrograde urogram

b. CECT

c. MRI

d. USG

70. preservative used for upper end of bone-

a. formalin

b. saturated solution of salt

c. no preservative

d.

71. glucose uptake is regulated by-

a. GLUT-4 receptor

b. ATP & CAMP

c. blood glucose level

d.

72. varicocoel is more common in Lt. side because Lt. gonadal vein-

a. drain to Lt. renal vein

b. drain to IVC

c. compressed by rectum

d.

73. coloured halo’s is seen in all , except-

a. corneal opacity

b. corneal edema

c. acute congestive glaucoma

d. cataract

74. all are true about Laurence moon biedle syndrome, except-

a. obesity

b. hypogonadism

c. polydactyly

d. autosomal dominant

75. true regarding McCune Albright syndrome is

a. fibrous dysplasia

b. osteogenesis imperfecta

c. fibrosa cystica osteitis

d. fibrous histiocytosis

76. soft contact lens is made up of-

a. PMMA

b. HEMA

c. glass

c. polymer

77. two cell stage in meiosis during oogenesis occurs- (see dutta for correct question, as it is picked directly from dutta)

a. just after fertilization

b. just after birth

c. during birth

d. during ovulation

78. deglutition reflex start from

a. movement of tongue

b. cricopharyngeal muscle contraction

c. superior pharyngeal muscle contraction

d. contraction of soft palate

79. calcification is not seen in-

a. epiglottis

b. arytenoids

c. thyroid

d. cricoid

80. post partum urinary retention most commonly due to-

a. vulval hematoma

b. excess oxytocin infusion

c. epidural analgesia

d.

81. treatment of dislocation of patella-

a. puttiplate operation

b. bankart operation

c. postro-medial tissue realease?

d. magnuson operation?

82. following is increased in pituitary stalk transaction-

a. prolactin

b. ACTH

c. GH

d. TSH

83. cycloplegic drug used in case of 2 yr. old child-

a. atropine eye drop

b. atropine ointment

c.

d.

84. true about rectal carcinoma-

a. can be feel on DRE in < 10% cases

b. whole colon can be seen for any irregularity by sigmoidoscope

c.

d.

85. true regarding  neurogenic shock, except-

a. tachycardia

b. tachypnoea

c. warm extremity

d. hypotension

86. mast cell releases all, except-

a. PG

b. histamine

c. heparin?

d. alpha methyl dopa

87. micturition syncope is seen with-

a. brandy

b. rum

c. beer

d. wine

88. true regarding hepatorenal syndrome is all, except-

a. urine osmolality > serum osmolality

b. creatinine clearance > 40

c.

d.

89. a patient is present with FPG=113 mg/dl, PPPG= 138 mg/dl. Probable diagnosis is-

a. normal

b. diabetes mellitus

c. IGT (impaired glucose tolerance)

d. IFG (impaired fasting glucose)

90. management of HIV positive pregnant female-

a. immediate membrane rupture

b. delay rupture of membrane as long as possible

c. rupture at full dialation

d.

91. treatment of choice of endometriosis-

a. danazol

b. GnRH

c. OCP

d.

92. all are risk factor in case of pelvic endometriosis due to retrograde menstruation causing infertility, , except-

a. dyspareunia

b. increased macrophage function

c. anovulation

d.

93. true about combined OCP, except-

a. protective in Ca Cx

b. not given in lactation.

c.

d.

94. triple test include all, except-

a. HPL

b. AFP

c. HCG

d. conjugated oestriol

95. spalding sign is seen in

a. maceration

b. mummification

c. putrefaction

d. adipocere

96. leathery stomach is seen in-

a. carbolic acid poisoning

b. O.P.poisoning

c. As

d. Pb

97. tree bark calcification is seen in-

a. syphilis

b. dissecting aneurysm

c. atherosclerosis

d.

98. metastatic calcification is seen in-

a. hyperparathyroidism

b. hyperthyroidism

c. hypothyroidism

d.

99. GAG containing glucuronic acid is all, except-

a. hyaluronic acid

b. heparan sulphate

c. dermatan sulphate

d. keratin sulphate

100. cofactor for transamination reaction is-

a. thiamine pyrophosphate

b. pyridoxine

c.

d.

101. Regarding synthesis of triacyl glycerol in adipose tissue, all of the

following are true except

A. Synthesis from Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

B. Enzyme Glycerol kinase plays an important role

C. Enzyme Glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important

role

D. Phosphatidate is hydrolyzed

102. prevalence of TB in india-

a. <5000

b. <50,000

c. <5,00,000

d. <50,00,000

103. buffalo hump is seen in

a. cushing syndrome

b.

c.

d.

104. AVN is seen in-

a. distal scaphoid fracture

b. femoral head with subtrochanteric fracture

c. body of tallus

d.

105. true regarding polycystic kidney disease is-

a. autosomal recessive

b. berry’s aneurysm

c. chromosome 14 is involved

d.

106. true about USG finding of PCOD is all, except-

a. necklace pattern seen

b. stromal hypertrophy

c. ovarian diameter > 7

d.

107. calcium is not used in treatment of-

a. hypocalcemia

b. hypokalemia

c. hyperkalemia

d. CCB overdose

108. decremental response on repeated nerve stimulation is seen with all, except-

a. myasthenia gravis

b. aminoglycoside

c. motor neuron disease

d. curare like drug

109. hyperphosphatemia is associated with-

a. renal osteodystrophy

b. rickets

c.

d.

110. parasomniac disorders are all, except-

a. sleep paralysis

b. somnambulism

c. paroxysmal nocturnal dystonia

d. pressure palsy of nerves

111. gastrin secretion increases with-

a. sucralfate

b. ondansetron

c. misoprostol

d. omeprazole

112. best antipyretic for dengue fever is-

a. Paracetamol

b. aspirin

c. brufen

d. diclofenac

113. zileuton is-

a. lipo-oxygenase inhibitor

b. leukotrienes inhibitor

c. PG inhibitor

d.

114. diagnostic of unstable vertebral fracture-

a. displacement  > 10 mm

b. posterior longitudinal ligament tear

c.

d.

115. negri bodies is seen in-

a. rabies

b. parkinsonism

c. alzheimers disease

d.

116. true about warthin’s tumour, except-

a. premalignant condition

b. common in female

c.

d.

117. a old man is present with progressive dysphagia. All are true, except-

a. diagnosis is oesophagial carcinoma

b. ivor lewis operation is done for lower 1/3^rd  carcinoma.

c.

d.

118. high risk factor for gastric carcinoma-

a. intestinal metaplasia

b. intestinal hyperplasia

c.

d.

119. all are used in treatment of SIADH, except-

a. hypertonic saline infusion

b. furosemide

c. desmopressine

d. salt restricted diet

120. magnun symptom is-

a. illusion

b. hallucination

c. delusion

d.

121. true about thyroid carcinoma,except-

a. hurthle cell carcinoma is more malignant than follicular carcinoma

b.

c.

d.

122. Treatment of verrucous carcinoma larynx is-

a. laryngectomy

b. radiotherapy

c. chemotherapy

d. combination therapy

123. A patient is present with testicular pain, not relieved with scrotal elevation. Diagnosis is-

a. epididymo-orchitis

b. torsion of testes

c. fournier’s gangrene

d.

124. orchidopexy in undescended testes can prevent all, except-

a. malignancy of testes

b. atrophy of testes

c. torsion of testes

d.

125. Donaldson’s line indicates-

a. endolymphatic sac

b. endolymphatic duct

c. saccule

d. horizontal semicircular canal

126. nerve supply of tensor vela palati is-

a. vagus nerve

b. mandibular nerve via medial pterygoid

c. mandibular nerve via lateral pterygoid

d. maxillary nerve

127. true regarding green stick fracture-

a. it is incomplete fracture

b. usually comminuted fracture

c.

d.

128. nerve supply of top of nose is-

a. ophthalmic division of 5^th  cranial nerve

b. inferior orbital nerve

c. zygomatic branch

d. facial nerve

129. true regarding treatment of distal radius fracture, except-

a. conservative POP cast

b. open reduction

c. intramedullary nailing

d. external fixator is used in comminuted fracture

130. true regarding hydatid fluid-

a. contains scolex at base of cyst

b. pH 7.2

c. less immunogenic

d. specific gravity?

131. posterior division of obturator nerve pierces all, except-

a. capsule of knee joint

b. oblique popliteal ligament

c. adductor brevis

d. obturator externus

132. endemic typhus is caused by-

a. R. prowazeki

b. R. mooseri

c. R. tsutsugumushi

d. bartonella Quintana

133. vector of epidemic typhus is-

a. louse

b. flea

c. mite

d. tick

134. snowflake cataract is caused by-

a. diabetes

b. trauma

c.

d.

135. faint letter can be visualized by-

a. infra red rays

b. spectroscopy

c.

d.

136. following is seen in transposition of great vessels-

a. egg on  side

b. coer en sabot

c. box shaped heart

d.

137. cottage loaf appearance is seen in-

a. TAPVC

b. TOF

c. TGV

d. ebstein anomaly

138. sphenomandibular ligament is made up of-

a. prevertebral layer of deep cervical fascia

b. investing layer of deep cervical fascia

c. soft palate

d. mandibular arch

139. true regarding attenuation reflex-

a. is due to downward displacement of handle of malleus on small area of tympanic membrane

b. attenuation of loud sound

c. ossicular chain discontinuation

d.

140. movement of trochoid joint is in-

a. AP axis

b. vertical axis

c. transverse axis

d. transverse & vertical axis

141. in visceral leishmaniasis , LD bodies are characteristically seen in-

a. spleen

b. lymph node

c. bone marrow

d. buffy coat

142. dieulafoys lesion is seen at-

a. lesser curvature of stomach, 6 cm from oesophagogastric junction

b. greater curvature of stomach, 6 cm from oesophagogastric junction

c. 2 cm above pyloric sphincture

d.

143. sclerotic bodies are seen in-

a. chromoblastomycosis

b. sporotrichosis

c. mycetoma

d.

144. most common cause of PUO-

a. lymphoma

b. extrapulmonary TB

c.

d.

145. most common cause of pneumonia in HIV-

a. pneumococci

b. mycoplasma pneumonia

c. legionella

d. pneumocystis jiroveci

146. following is seen at swing phase of gait-

a. heel on ground

b. toes on ground

c. both on air

d.

147. the following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation, except-

a. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV).

b. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation

(SIMV).

c. Pressure support ventilation (PSV).

d. Assist-control ventilation (ACV).

148. true regarding kidney, except-

a. thick ascending limb is permeable to water

b. thin descending limb is permeable to solutes

c. counter current mechanism is responsible for increasing medullary osmolarity

d. vasa recta is poorly supplied by blood

149. following is used for test of streptococcal pyoderma-

a. streptococcal DNA polymerase

b. streptozyme

c. antistreptococcal-O- antigen

d. coagglutination reaction

150. if resting membrane potential is decreased from -70 to -80, true is-

a. threshold potential can’t be raised

b. magnitude of action potential can be lowered

c.

d.

151. following are treatment of axillary vein thrombosis, except-

a. first rib decompression

b. antibiotic

c. embolectomy

d.

152. at mid axillary line, parietal pleura ends at-

a. 6^th intercostal space

b. 8^th intercostal space

c. 10^th ribs

d. 11^th ribs

153. 95 % confidence limit/ variance signifies-

a. 1 SD

b. 2 SD

c. 3 SD

d. 4 SD

154. degree of freedom for 3×2 contigency table is-

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

155. benzodiazepines receptor act via-

a. presynaptic inhibition

b. excitation of presynaptic inhibition

c.

d.

156. which of the following is not used to reverse naltrexone overdose-

a. pentazocine

b. methadone

c. fentanyl

d. buprenorphine

157. “rooming in” means-

a. baby placed with mother’s body for 24 hrs daily

b. baby placed to side of mother’s bed, on crib for 24 hrs daily

c. baby in warm room

d. baby in nursery

158. all are true regarding expectant management of ectopic pregnancy, except-

a. no gestational sac seen.

c.

d.

159. smallest pelvic diameter is-

a. diagonal conjugates

b. interspinous diameter

c. intertuberous diameter

d. true conjugates

160. indication of cryosurgery in case of CIN-

a. small lesion

b.

c.

d.

161. N. gonorrhoeae do not infect-

a. bulbourethral gland

b. paraurethral gland

c. urethra

d. ectocervix

162. true regarding a 2 yr old child presenting with brain tumour/ lesion-

a. calcification is not seen in ependymoma

b. more chance of being choroid plexus cyst, if present in 4^th ventricle

c. astrocytoma is not common in child < 2 yr

d.

163. H. pylori is risk factor for all, except-

a. gastric carcinoma

b. lymphoma

c. acute gastritis

d. chronic gastritis

164. a 12 yr child present with uncomplicated indirect inguinal hernia, treatment of choice is-

a. herniotomy

b. hernioplasty

c. herniorrhaphy

d. tension free soft tissue approximation

165. lethal toxins of clostridium perfringes are-

a. α, β, γ, δ

b. α, β, γ, λ

c. α, β, δ, λ

d. α, β, κ, λ

166. liposome is used in-

a. exocytosis/ pinocytosis

b. endocytosis

c. drug delivery

d. signal transduction

167. in bacteria, extrachromosomal ds-DNA occurs as-

a. plasmid

b. liposomes

c. transduction

d.

168. which bond is preserved in denaturation of protein-

a. H-bond

b. disulphide bond

c. electrostatic bond

d. peptide bond

169. which bond is not involved in tertiary structure of protein-

a. side chain bonding

b. H-bond

c. main chain?

d.

170. A- type tympanogram is seen in-

a. normal

b. fibrosis of tympanic membrane

c. ossicular discontinuity

d. CSOM

171. a 10 yr old child presenting with infantile type of skeletal development, diagnosis is-

a. constitutional delay

b. hypothyroidism

c. marquio syndrome

d.

172. call-exner body is seen in-

a. granulosa cell tumour

b. endodermal sinus tumour

c.

d.

173. following is seen in type-2 diabetes mellitus-

a. ketosis

b. hyperlipidemia

c.

d.

174. true regarding anion gap-

a. (Na + K) – (HCO₃)

b. (Na + K) – (HCO₃ + Cl)

c. (Na + K) – (Cl)

d. (Na + K) – (HCO₃ + Cl)₃

175. breast milk gives-

a. 60 calories

b. 67 calories

c. 70 calories

d. 80 calories

176. C-kit is seen in-

a. GIST

b. Ca colon

c.

d.

177. following type of ca breast has good prognosis-

a. ductal ca

b. glandular ca

c. inflammatory ca

d. tubular ca

178. true regarding I¹³¹ used in RAIU-

a. high risk for malignancy

b.

c.

d.

179. following intracranial hemorrhage is limited by cranial sutures-

a. EDH

b. SDH

c. SAH

d. intracerebral hemorrhage

180. true regarding congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis in a child-

a. usually seen in girl child

b. usually present at birth

c. hypochloremic alkalosis

d.

181. neuroendocrine lesion of lung is-

a. small cell ca

b.

c.

d.

182. true regarding treatment of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is-

a. stomach evacuation is done prior to surgery

b. hellar’s myotomy is done

c.

d.

183. most severe form of alpha thalessemia is-

a. hydrops foetalis

b. oedema?

c.

d.

184. all are complications of obesity, except-

a. hepatic steatosis

b. obstructive jaundice

c. hepatic jaundice

d.

185. ENL is seen in-

a. lepromatous leprosy

b. tuberculoid leprosy

c. borderline tuberculoid

d. indeterminate leprosy

186. a lady is presenting with history of constipation for 10 days. No air fluid level is seen in X-ray. Probable diagnosis is-

a. mechanical obstruction

b. duodenal obstruction

c.

d.

187. following is seen in pulmonary chemoreflex, except-

a. apnoea

b. hyperapnoea

c. bradycardia

d. hypotension

see ganong page-610

188. following is not seen in ARDS-

a. pulmonary edema

b. hypoxemia

c. hypercapnia

d. still lung

189. spontaneous regression is seen in-

a. strawberry hemangioma

b. capillary hemangioma

c. cavernous hemangioma

d. port wine stain

190. in scintigraphy, earliest detection of osteomyelitis is within-

a. 24 hrs

b. 48 hrs

c. 72 hrs

d. within week

191. class-2 bite, in case of rabies includes-

a. licks on fresh cuts

b. scratches with oozing of blood on palm

c. bites from wild animal

d. scratches without oozing of blood

192. all are seen in patent ductus arteriosus, except-

a. clubbing and cyanosis

b. machinery murmur

c. prominent heaving apex

d.

193. a patient is present with 7^th & 8^th rib fracture and hemothorax, but hemodynamically stable. Management are all except-

a. pleural tap

b. thoracotomy

c.

d.

194. three point relationship of elbow joint is not disturbed in-

a. supracondylar fracture

b.

c.

d.

195. leading questions are permitted in-

a. dying deposition

b. magistrate inquest

c. police inquest

d. cross examination.